Oldfart 0 Posted September 20, 2012 http://www.visordown.com/motorcycle-news--general-news/does-one-rule-for-us-have-validity/21436.html Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Macie_UK 0 Posted September 20, 2012 It does seem that bikes are treated more harshly, but courts, IMO, have been seemingly inconsistent and/or disproportionate for years and not just on motoring offences. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
BanditMike 0 Posted September 23, 2012 @Macie_UK wrote:It does seem that bikes are treated more harshly, but courts, IMO, have been seemingly inconsistent and/or disproportionate for years and not just on motoring offences. I sometimes read these and wonder how the courts can get away with it? As far as I'm aware, decisions in cases should be based on precedent and custom. Obviously not for bikes!?!! Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
